This is a very strong accusation, so it should be clear on facts. USA really had strict rules limiting Jewish immigration in 1930s. Mass murders started in 1941-42, when USA already went to the war; i.e. this 'complicity' thing is applied retroactively. Please, note, that USA still received many Jewish immigrants in 1930s while most other countries did nothing.

>I believe her point was that the U.S. was complicit in the death of Jews during the period the U.S. didn't allow unlimited Jewish immigration during the war when the U.S. knew or suspected that Jews were being exterminated. It's like standing by and watching a murder and doing nothing about it.
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>>>>I agree. Of course, was it known (or only suspected) that Jews were being put to death then? There was a period of time when the public knew they were being gathered up and sent to work camps, but not that they were being killed. I'm not sure, I have to look it all back up again. Chances are, the public may not have known, but the governments all probably did (or had enough reason to believe it was so).
>>>The US government certainly knew well before the camps were liberated. I don't remember exactly when they knew, but it was well before the war ended. (A vague memory says sometime in '42, but I'm not sure that's right.)
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>>>Tamar
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>>How can you blame US government for events happened in 1942 in Germany?