>How is this different to a prenuptial agreement? I think that was the point of the judge and Nicholas.
>
>By the way, looking for the right wording I found this quote from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prenuptial_agreement
>
>"It is estimated that 86% of marriages in the United States have prenuptial agreements and 79% in Canada."

Huge difference. A prenup is entered into presumably by 2 adults on an equal footing. It's an ordinary legal contract based on contract law. Either party can refuse or agree. Sharia is pretty much always weighted against the female. And she is usually on far less than an equal footing. In Sharia, males are ascendent. It is also based on religious law rather than contract law. How does this resemble a prenup in any way?