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American politics question
Message
From
26/03/2011 10:50:09
 
 
General information
Forum:
Politics
Category:
Other
Miscellaneous
Thread ID:
01504867
Message ID:
01505071
Views:
20
>>>>>>The first meeting of Congress was in 1789. In those days were there political parties, or was congress made up of individuals elected as representatives of a group of people?
>>>>>
>>>>>There were no official political parties in 1789. There were factions, who later evolved into parties.
>>>>>
>>>>>http://www.publicbookshelf.com/public_html/The_Great_Republic_By_the_Master_Historians_Vol_II/unitedsta_ii.html
>>>>>http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_political_parties_in_the_United_States#Historical_parties
>>>>
>>>>Well, I asked the question because it seems to me that one unaffiliated individual really can represent his constituants. Whereas a party member must tow the party line and therefore does not completely represent the people he is supposed to serve. Furthermore, voters have a choice of two instead of say, five or six good people for which to vote.
>>>
>>>No single representative can "completely represent 2 people let alone "the people he is supposed to serve". ;)
>>>
>>>During the last US presidential election there were 21 candidates to choose from.
>>
>>More emphasis on party politics vs an individual please :-) OH, and this just in . . . .GlaxoSmithKline has been awarded a $425.9-million contract to make sure Canadians have enough vaccine to fight a flu pandemic in the next 10 years.
>
>So Canada has re-upped their contract with the same company who was slow to deliver the vaccine during the 2009 panic I mean "pandemic".
>
>Congratz!
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>To GSK I mean. ;)

Yep. I think it's time for Glenfiddich.
I ain't skeert of nuttin eh?
Yikes! What was that?
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