>It's the way to go if you want to redistribute even more wealth from the middle class to the rich.
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>How do you figure that? Using a very simplistic example: with no loopholes and a flat tax, eveyone pays the same percentage. Seems extremely fair to me. 10% of $10,000 is $1,000. 10% of $10,000,000 is $1,000,000.
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>So how does the guy who pays $1,000 redistribute more wealth to the guy that pays $1,000,000? Please enlighten me because I simply do not see it.

In theory I agree totally, but believe then calculating corporate tax will not be able to close loopholes as clearly.
Next step a flood of incorporations...