There was local law on that issue dating back to the 80's that was tossed out (or rewritten) for this count.

Regardless, there are Federal statutes that state that you can't change the laws or statutes (and I'm assuming, standards, as well) retroactively.

If you go back to previous elections, say, the '96 election, nobody challenged anything. The machine counts, with more or less the same percentage of spoilled ballots, was unchallenged. Why change now? No one ever said an election had to be perfect.

>But isn't that the law, that the local canvassing board has that right? I am asking, as that is what David Stevenson (?) has indicated.