Mike,

Yes, that is the other possibility I was thinking of. It could be copying the script and doing a search and replace on the copy. I'll try the Profiler.

Also thanks for your reply on debugging insert and update statements.

Thanks!

>Is it possible that that EXE is stripping the ms501 from the script and replacing it with the name of the database that you supply? One easy way to find out would be to fire up SQL Profiler before running the scripts through the EXE host.
>
>-Mike
>
>>I am working with a pre-existing sql script. The sql script gets called from an Exe that I don't have the source for (visual accountmate). The script is designed to be used 'generically' insofar as you use the executable program to specify the name of the target database to populate - in my case 'bss'.
>>But all the code in the script references a database name ms501 - e.g.
>>
>>insert into ms501.dbo.arcust
>>
>>When the script finishes executing - my database - bss - has been populated. Even while running - I see no reference to ms501 in enterprise manager. My question is: Is it possible to 'alias' the database name - not a table - the database. I am guessing that such a transact sql statement or sp - is called in the exe befor the sql script runs.
>>
>>Otherwise, how would the system know to populate 'bss' when the references are to ms501.
>>
>>TIA