I have a database with stored procs that handle the record
insert/update/delete requests so that our application's front end is not
directly issuing these commands. If I set up a user on the database with
execute permissions on the stored procs, how come the user would still need
SELECT permissions if the proc issues a select statement? Would this logic
filter through the other permissions as well? The whole point of this
permission setup is to not allow the user to directly make any
modifications to the data.
Any insight would be appreciated.
Laterness,
Jon
Jon Rosenbaum
Devcon Drummer