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>How about the fact that Fox, when it was bought, already had a mass following which was used to the product which had a royalty-free distribution? And that the promise from Microsoft to these masses at the time was "and you will still be able to distribute runtimes for free".
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>But if that is so - then why tie the runtimes to Windows? Why make the qualification in the EULA? The promise I see you articulating above to me - does not seem to be pegged to Windows specifically. AND - for versions ,5 and 6 - no such qualification was in the EULA.
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>The fundamental question is why did MS decided to - beginnning with Version 7 - peg the user of the royalty free runtimes to Windows?
Agreed - this is the fundamental turn, and the crucial question. Funny, though, that the 7 is around for a couple of years now, and the question wasn't pronounced aloud; 8 is here almost a year and yet the question didn't emerge at all... until Whil met Ken. Funny how observer influences the experiment, isn't it?