Sergey,

Might as well ask you directly, since you're the one that answers most of my questions anyway :-)

Assume two SQL Server DB's, DB1 & DB2 that are 100% identical.

Also assume one VFP DB, containing remote views only.

Is it possible to let these views point to DB1 or DB2 respectively, or must I redo the whole thing and use SQLPT?

TIA

Regards

Peter