>How do you know? We do not know the genes associated to sexual orientation (yet). Anyways, a gene defect can occur spontaneously, with no family history. So why would this be different?
Does not make any sense. You claimed that it is a scientific fact that people are born one way or the other in regards with their sexual orientation, but the gene responsible for this has yet to be discovered? Then it is not a scientific fact, just a theory, right?
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